1. Flint cup used in
a. 17th century b. 18th century c. 20th century d. 19th century
2. While dealing with HBV and HIV, biosafety level should be observed
a. BSL 1 b. BSL 2 c. BSL 3 d. BSL 1 & 3
3. Simplest way of personal safety
a. Sterilization b. Antiseptic c. c. Hand wash d. Bleach
4. Gloves, mask and gown used for
a. Patient safety b. Lab safety c. Hospital safety d. Personal safety
5. To draw blood, needle angle should be
a. 15o b. 50o c. 45o d. 100o
6. For coagulation studies, which top tube should be used?
a. Blue b. Red c. Yellow d. Green
7. Needle size for venipuncture
a. 10 b. 24 c. 22 d. 26
1. Petechiae result from rupturing
a. Skin
b. Arteries
c. Veins
d. Capillaries
2. Inflammation of vein
a. Phlebitis
b. Arthritis
c. Otitis
d. Trauma
3. To clean up venipuncture site, swab used
a. Randomly
b. Circular motion
c. Up & down
d. Rapidly
4. Tourniquet used for
a. Collection of blood
b. Puncture vein
c. Locate the potential vein
d. Stop the blood oozing
5. Venipuncture area clean up with
a. Formalin
b. NaCl
c. KMNO4
d. Alcohol
6. For parasite, human body acts as
a. Host
b. Prey
c. Predator
d. Non-living place
7. Organism get some nutrition from other organism through contact
a. Saprophyte
b. b. Parasite
c. Bacteria
d. Virus
8. Metazoa is a parasite with
a. One cell
b. No cell
c. Multi cell
d. Two cell
9. Parasite living inside the host
a. Protozoa
b. Eukaryote
c. Ectoparasite
d. Endoparasite
10. Organism with well-defined chromosomes in nuclear membrane
a. Eukaryote
b. Prokaryote
c. Parasite
d. Virus
11. Ascaris lumbricoid is
a. Trematode
b. Nematode
c. Protozoa
d. Cestode
12. A cestode is
a. Tape worm
b. Hook worm
c. Round worm
d. Fluke
13. Ticks and mites are
a. Flagellates
b. Arthropods
c. Ciliates
d. Nematodes
14. Trichomonas vaginalis is
a. Ameba
b. Sporozoa
c. Flagellate
d. Filarial worm
15. Blood fluke is
a. Fasciola psisbuski
b. Loa loa
c. Ancylostoma
d. Schistoma
16. In taxonomic classification, plasmodium is
a. Genus
b. Species
c. Sub phylum
d. Phylum
17. Tenia saginata is
a. Tissue cestode
b. Intestinal
c. Blood Trematode
d. Intestinal Trematode
18. Most important arthropod transmitting parasitic infection is
a. Honey bee
b. Spider
c. Mosquito
d. Lady bird
19. Protozoa cyst size is
a. 1 – 10µm
b. 60 – 80µm
c. 100 – 150µm
d. 5 – 30µm
20. Scientific study of serum is
a. Serology
b. Cytology
c. Pathology
d. Virology
21. Level of antibodies in serum
a. No. of antigen
b. Titer
c. No. antibodies
d. Amount of reaction
22. Reaction rate can be increased by
a. Decrease in temperature
b. Increase in temperature
c. Small amount of sample
d. Small amount of reagent
23. ELISA can be used to detect Rota virus in
a. CSF
b. Blood
c. Urine
d. Feces
24. Clearing agent is
a. Totally miscible in dehydrating agent and embedding medium
b. Immiscible in embedding medium
c. Partially miscible in dehydrating fluid
d. Only miscible in dehydrating fluid
25. Which medium is used for mounting?
a. Xylene
b. Canada balsam
c. Alcohol
d. Wax
26. H & E stain stains the tissue in color
a. Blue & pink
b. Brown & pink
c. pink & red
d. Red & blue
27. Most common fixative
a. Xylene
b. Ch3CooH
c. 10% formalin
d. Alcohol
28. Process in which solidification of tissue is done by adding any medium i.e. agar, wax, gel etc.
a. Dehydration
b. Clearing
c. Fixation
d. Embedding
29. Identify the instrument (microtome image was given)
a. Tissue processor
b. Microtome
c. Hot air oven
d. Auto clave
1. Water rich tissues are hardened by freezing and cut frozen in
a. Refrigerator
b. Oven
c. Cryostat
d. Embedding machine
2. Genetic defect in one of globin chain of Hb is called
a. Retinopathy
b. Immunoglobinemia
c. Microalbuminemia
d. d. Hemoglobinopathies
3. Underproduction of globin protein results
a. Thalassemia
b. Leukemia
c. Sickle cell
d. Thrombocytopenia
4. Met-Hemoglobin is
a. Metal containing Hb
b. Deoxyhemoglobin
c. Carboxyhemoglobin
d. Oxygenated hemoglobin
5. Sickle cell disease is
a. Quantitative
b. Silent
c. Qualitative
d. Hyper active gene
6. Electrophoresis is used to observe pattern of
a. carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Lipids
d. proteins
7. A person who carries unusual gene but no disease is called
a. carrier
b. low risk person
c. patient
d. staff
8. When both parents have hemoglobinopathies the chance of thalassemia in each pregnancy is
a. 1:5
b. 1:4
c. 1:6
d. 1:8
9. According to WHO carriers of hemoglobinopathies are
a. 8%
b. 10%
c. 5% d. 2.4%
10. Neonatal screening is
a. dangerous
b. prognostic
c. ineffective
d. Diagnostic
11. HbA is
a. a2b2
b. a2y2
c. a2g2
d. a2e2
12. After multiple transfusions, chelation therapy id used in
a. Copper overload
b. iron overload
c. fluid excess
d. adenomatous state
13. Predictor of mortality in sickle cell disease is
a. Arthritis
b. retinopathy
c. acute chest syndrome
d. myopathy
14. In beta thalassemia major MCH is
a. >30 pg
b. 10 pg
c. <30 pg
d. 15-30 pg
15. Alkaline electrophoresis
a. Cellulose acetate
b. Mackonaky agar
c. Agarose agar
d. Citrate agar
16. Hemoglobinopathies effect on spleen
a. Spleen clearance decreased
b. spleen clearance increased
c. spleen rupture
d. d. spleen shrinks
17. HbA+HbS are Hb variants
a. Beta thalassemia major
b. Normal individual
c. heterozygous sickle
d. normal neonate
18. in Hb C disease spleen enlargement
a. mild
b. severe
c. moderate to severe
d. mild to moderate
19. Sickling test is diagnostic
a. sickle cell anemia
b. thalassemia minor
c. thalassemia major
d. hemolytic anemia
20. In Hb barts hydrops fetalus there is no ……………………of Hb
a. beta chain
b. a chain
c. y chain
d. a and y chain
21. Peptone water is
a. solid media
b. complex media
c. synthetic media
d. simple media
22. Medium used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. L.J media
b. Mackonaky
c. Wilson Blair
d. TCBS
23. POCT stands for
a. Patient of critical trauma
b. patient of care testing
c. panel of culture technique
d. patient of computed tomography
24. Technique used for colony forming units
a. Widal
b. ELISA
c. miles and smiles
d. Toluidine blue stain
25. In bacterial growth cycle which phase has maximum metabolic activity
a. Lag phase
b. Log phase
c. Death phase
d. Stationary phase
26. Host of S. suis infection is
a. Swine
b. Cattle
c. Human
d. Cat
27. For the detection of Mycobacterium tuberculosis which stain is used
a. Gram stain
b. ZN stain
c. Giemsa stain
d. Wright’s stain
28. Typical lesion of Staph. aureus is
a. Keloid
b. Patch
c. Abscess
d. Plaque
29. CAMP test performed to identify which group of Streptococci?
a. Varidans group
b. Group A
c. Group B
d. Group C
30. More than 50% water born epidemics are caused by
a. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Tenia saginata
31. LJ (L-J) charts are used to make graphs which show
a. Training and development
b. Quality control
c. Day to day quality control values
d. Errors in lab results
32. An important tool which facilitate the quality system development is
a. Analytical weight balance
b. Laboratory instruments
c. c. Checklist
d. Laboratory environment
33. Performance of the laboratory quality assurance and control can be judged by
a. Checklist and results
b. Technician behavior
c. Skilled staff
d. d Auditing
34. Benefits of quality control system of clinical laboratory is to achieve
a. Reliable results
b. Biochemical profile
c. Complete blood picture
d. Unknown sample
35. Degree of agreement between replicate measurements of a constituent in a sample is
a. Standard deviation
b. b. Precision
c. Sensitivity
d. Variance
36. Laboratory quality control is statistical procedure used to monitor and evaluate
a. Lab staff skill
b. Equipment’s
c. Analytical process
d. Standard deviation
37. Which is not key element of quality management system?
a. Organizational management
b. Documentation
c. Monitoring and evaluation
d. Higher education
38. Which is the necessary to assure better clinical results from an analytical instrument
a. Calibration of instrument
b. Chemicals
c. House keeping
d. Corrective maintenance
39. ISO stands for
a. International standardization of organization
b. International organization of standardization
c. Initial organization for standardization
d. International organization for standardization
40. Which is the specific quality standard for medical laboratories?
a. ISO 17025
b. ISO 19000
c. ISO 15189
d. ISO 14000
41. In LJ (L-J) chart the quality data is plotted to predict that whether lab test is
a. Clear
b. Not clear
c. Not working well
d. Working well
42. Purpose of external quality assurance to ensure reporting of
a. Quality results
b. Reduced cost analysis
c. Clinical finding
d. Reference results
43. Role of quality assurance is to have a procedure for comparison of same specimen results from
a. An instrument
b. Different instrument
c. Each instrument
d. Manual method
44. To focus a specimen, it is best to start with which objective
a. Ocular
b. Scanning
c. Low power
d. High power
1. Microscope was invented by
a. Van Leuwen-hook
b. James Rick
c. Steven fleeing
d. Fredrick
e. Pasture
2. Which one of the following joints has labrum over the margins of articular surface?
a. Acromioclavicular
b. Hip
c. Knee
d. Proximal radioulnar
e. Sternoclavicular
3. The most precise balance is
a. Triple balance
b. Analytical balance
c. Electrical balance
d. Mechanical balance
e. Nitrogen balance
4. Damage to basal ganglia usually causes the following in limb musculature EXCEPT
a. Spasticity
b. Involuntary movements
c. Intention tremors
d. Disorder of posture
e. interference in voluntary movements
5. Which one of the following is an example secondary cartilaginous joint?
a. Intermetatarsal
b. Manubrosternal
c. Middle radioulnar
d. Radiocarpal
e. Sacroiliac
6. The long narrow tubes, open at both ends, which are used for fluid column measurement are
a. Graduated cylinders
b. Pipettes
c. Funnels
d. Test tubes
e. Eppendorf
7. A cestode is
a. Tape worm
b. Hook worm
c. Round worm
d. flukes
8. For coagulation studies which top-color bottle is used?
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Green
9. In case of very small volume of urine the specific gravity of urine can be measured by
a. Butyrometer
b. Refractometer
c. Reflectometer
d. Barometer
e. None of the above
10. Bacterial decomposition of bilirubin in intestine gives a pigment known as
a. Bilinogen
b. Urobilin
c. Urobilinogen
d. Uroglobulinogen
e. None of the above
11. Which of the following was previously used to detect alkalinity or acidity?
a. Filter paper
b. Blot paper
c. Litmus paper
d. Sand paper
e. Tissue paper
12. The facial nerve enters the skull through which one of the following foramina?
a. Hypoglossal
b. Internal acoustic
c. Jugular
d. Lacerum
e. Rotundum
13. For interpretation of bacterial identification, sugar test is positive in case of
a. Black color
b. Pink color
c. Blue color
d. Red color
e. No color
14. Blood fluke is
a. Fasciola psisbuski
b. Loa loa
c. Ancylostoma duodenale
d. Schistosoma haematobium
15. Following severe damage to the WERNICKE’s area
a. Person unable to hear perfectly well
b. Person cannot recognize different words
c. Person is unable to comprehend and arrange coherent thoughts
d. Person is unable to read and recognize the thought that is conveyed
e. Person is unable to interpret facial expressions
16. The solution which changes the color with a certain pH is called
a. Pointer
b. Indicator
c. Marker
d. Locator
e. Titer
17. Bovine albumin (non-reactive protein) is added to all plates, it is called
a. Preparation
b. Reaction time
c. Opening
d. Blocking
18. Which one of the following is a branch of hepatic artery?
a. Cystic
b. Esophageal
c. Left gastric
d. Right gastric
19. Visual accommodation involves
a. Increased tension of suspensory ligament
b. Decreased in lens curvature
c. Relaxation of iris sphincter
d. Increase intraocular pressure
e. Contraction ciliary muscles
20. Ptosis of the eye is due to paralysis of which one of the following muscles?
a. Inferior oblique
b. Levator palpebrae
c. Orbicularis
d. Orbitalis
e. Superior oblique
21. The reagent used for catalase test in identification of bacteria is
a. Sulfuric acid
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Glutathione
d. Xylene
e. Methanol
22. Electrophoresis is used to observe the pattern of
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Lipids
d. Proteins
23. The range of color change of phenol red is from
a. Yellow to blue
b. Yellow to red
c. Red to yellow
d. Blue to red
e. Orange to red
24. The glass which is composed of a mixture of oxides of silicon, calcium and sodium is
a. Low acting glass
b. High silica glass
c. Standard flint glass
d. High thermal resistance glass
e. High alkali resistance glass
25. Previously two systems of measurements were used, namely
a. English and German System
b. Canadian and British System
c. French and Russian System
d. British and French System
e. British and American System
26. The liquefying agent used to treat sputum after its washing with saline is
a. Sputomycin
b. Sputolyin
c. Actinomycin
d. Normal saline
e. Tap water
27. Which one of the following nerves supplies scalp?
a. Auriculotemporal
b. Infratrochlear
c. Nasociliary
d. Occipital
e. Zygomatic
28. ELISA can be used to detect rotavirus in
a. CSF
b. Blood
c. Urine
d. Feces
29. In tuberculosis infection, the pus can be cultured on
a. Lowenstein Jensen medium
b. MacConkey agar
c. Blood agar
d. Nutrient agar
e. Both B & C
30. In case of amoebic infection, the color of pus will be
a. Green
b. Reddish
c. Chocolate color
d. Yellowish
e. White
31. If both parents have hemoglobinopathy, what will be the chance in each pregnancy?
a. 1 in 5
b. 1 in 4
c. 1 in 6
d. 2 in 4
32. The portion of blood obtained by removing all the formed elements from anti-coagulated blood is called
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Albumins
d. White blood cells
e. None of the above
33. Somatosensory cortex exhibits highest degree of representation for
a. Lips
b. Trunk
c. Thumb
d. Limbs
e. External genitalia
34. Underproduction of globin protein results in
a. Thalassemia
b. Leukemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Thrombocytopenia
35. Organism with well-defined chromosome in a membrane is
a. Eukaryote
b. Prokaryote
c. Parasite
d. Virus
e. None of the above
36. Specific protein detection in tissue is called
a. Western blot technique
b. Agglutination reaction
c. Immunohistochemistry
d. Immunofluorescence
37. Which vitamin deficiency would most likely lead to night blindness?
a. Vitamin E
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin B12
e. Vitamin A
38. Person who carry the unusual gene but do not have disease, are called
a. Carrier
b. Low risk persons
c. Patients
d. Staff
39. What needle size is best for venipuncture
a. 10
b. 24
c. 22
d. 26
40. In the deep freezer the lowest temperature produced with the help of liquid nitrogen gas is
a. – 110oC
b. – 150oC
c. – 170oC
d. – 70oC
e. – 100oC
41. Which one of the following is the dominant cell type seen in the paracortex of lymph nodes?
a. B – Lymphocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Plasma cells
d. T – Lymphocytes
42. The indicator used in sugar test for bacterial identification is
a. Araladite
b. Androde
c. Phenol Red
d. Comassie blue
e. Bromophenol blue
43. Which one of the following joints has menisci in joint cavity?
a. Atlanto-axial
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. Temporomandibular
e. Wrist
44. Ascaris lumbricoides is
a. Trematode
b. Nematode
c. Protozoa
d. Cestode
45. The best for the detection of ketone bodies is
a. Gerhard test
b. Rothera’s test
c. Hart test
d. Dip Sticks test
e. None of the above
46. In a histological section of the spleen, splenic cords of Billroth are mainly located in which one of the following locations?
a. Capsule
b. Malpighian Corpuscle
c. Red pulp
d. Trabeculae
47. What is simplest way of personal safety?
a. Sterilization
b. Antiseptics
c. Hand washing
d. Bleach
48. Which one of the following is a feature of cartilage?
a. Avascular
b. Contain chondroitin sulphate
c. Contain collagen
d. Not innervated
e. Tend to become calcified
49. Sickling test is diagnostic for
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Thalassemia minor
c. Thalassemia major
d. Hemolytic anemia
50. Utricle detects
a. Horizontal linear acceleration
b. Vertical linear acceleration
c. Angular velocity
d. Linear velocity
51. Basic nutrient medium in which sugars are prepared for standard sugar test in bacterial identification is
a. Nutrient agar
b. Peptone water
c. Blood
d. HCl
e. NaOH
52. Sickle cell disease is
a. Quantitative
b. Silence genes
c. Qualitative
d. Hyper active gene
53. Wernicke’s hemianopia occurs if the lesion is at which one of the following locations?
a. Occipital lobe
b. Optic chiasma
c. Optic nerve
d. Optic tract
e. Tectobulbar tract
54. To clean up the venipuncture place, a swab is used
a. Randomly
b. Circular motion
c. Repeatedly
d. Up and down
55. Cytology is microscopic study of
a. Tissue
b. Cell
c. Organ
d. whole body
56. Neonatal screening for the hemoglobinopathies is
a. Dangerous
b. Prognostic
c. Ineffective
d. Diagnostic
57. Peptone water is
a. Solid media
b. Complex media
c. Synthetic media
d. Simple media
58. The mixer commonly used in Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL) is
a. Shaking mixer
b. Rotating mixer
c. Whirl mixer
d. Magnetic mixer
59. Tourniquet is used to
a. Collection of blood
b. Puncture the vein
c. Locate the potential vein
d. Stop the oozing blood
60. The derived S.I unit of activity of radiation is
a. Gray
b. Becquerel
c. Volt
d. Pascal
e. Kelvin
61. The instrument used to measure color intensity is
a. Polari meter
b. Galvanometer
c. Thermometer
d. Colorimeter
e. Prism
62. Which one of the following is the function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Glycosylation
b. Steroid synthesis
c. Detoxification
d. Protein synthesis
e. Energy production
63. Reaction rate can be increased by
a. Decreasing temperature
b. Small amount of reaction reagent
c. Increasing temperature
d. Small amount of sample
64. Gloves, mask and gown is used for
a. Patient safety
b. Lab safety
c. Hospital safety
d. Personal safety
65. Parasite living inside the host is
a. Protozoa
b. Eukaryote
c. Ectoparasite
d. Endoparasite
66. Microscopic slides have
a. High refractivity
b. Low refractivity
c. Medium refractivity
d. Intermediate refractivity
e. None of the above
67. Common stain used in stool microscopic examination is
a. Acid fuchsin
b. Giemsa
c. Grams stain
d. Orange G
e. Ethidium
68. In Hb-Barts Hydrops foetalis, there is no -------------------- of hemoglobin
a. β – chain
b. α – chain
c. γ – chain
d. α & γ – chain
69. Different carcinogenic chemicals used in laboratory tests include
a. Strong acids
b. Alkalies
c. Ortho-toluidine
d. Mercury
e. Potassium cyanide
70. Widal test is suggested for
a. Tuberculosis
b. Enteric fever
c. Whooping cough
d. Bordetella infection
71. The normal color of stool is due to the presence of pigment
a. Urobilinogen
b. Bilinogen
c. Stercobilin
d. Stercobilinogen
e. None of the above
72. Ticks and mites are
a. Flagellates
b. Arthropods
c. Ciliates
d. Nematodes
73. Most commonly used sample for serology is
a. Serum
b. Urine
c. Whole blood
d. Blood cells
74. Which one of the following structure is the source of the development of the definitive kidney?
a. Allantois
b. Mesonephros
c. Metanephric blastema
d. Urogenital sinus
e. Urorectal septum
75. In taxonomic classification, plasmodium is
a. Genus
b. Species
c. Sub-phylum
d. Phylum
76. The units derived from mathematical manipulation of one or more of basic unit are called.
a. Standard units
b. Constant units
c. Derived units
d. Modified units
77. Transport of glucose across the cell membrane occurs by
a. Simple diffusion
b. Facilitated diffusion
c. Osmosis
d. Primary active transport
e. Secondary active transport
78. To draw blood needle is injected at the angle of
a. 15o
b. 50o
c. 45o
d. 180o
79. The degree of agreement between replicate measurements of a constituent in the specimen is called.
a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Specificity
d. Sensitivity
e. Reliability
80. Methemoglobinemia is
a. Metal-containing hemoglobin
b. Deoxygenated hemoglobin
c. Carboxy hemoglobin
d. Oxygenated hemoglobin
81. Sputum may be responsible for transmission of
a. Tuberculosis
b. Salmonella
c. Hepatitis
d. AIDS
e. Hemorrhagic fever
82. A 24 years old lady, 32 weeks pregnant, presented to Gynae/Obs OPD. On ultrasonography, it was noted that the placenta has abnormal adherence to the myometrium. Which one of the following is the appropriate term for this condition?
a. Battledore placenta
b. Placenta accreta
c. Placenta increta
d. Placenta percreta
e. Placenta previa
83. The mixer which is commonly used for shaking plasma or serum dilution is
a. Rotatory mixer
b. Whirl mixer
c. Magnetic mixer
d. Shaking mixer
e. Roller mixer
84. Trichomonas vaginalis is
a. Ameba
b. Sporozoa
c. Flagellate
d. Filarial worm
85. Somatic nervous system innervates which one of the following structure?
a. Arrector pilli muscles
b. Detrusor muscle
c. Myocardium
d. Rectus abdominis
e. Sweat glands
86. Inflammation of vein is called
a. Phlebitis
b. Arthritis
c. Otitis
d. Trauma
87. REM sleep is
a. Associated with high mental activity
b. Dreamless sleep
c. More refreshing than the deep sleep
d. The initial phase of sleep in a tired person
88. All the ionic compounds, whether volatile or non-volatile, are removed from water by the process of
a. Distillation
b. Evaporation
c. Deionization
d. Incubation
e. Thermoregulation
89. Most dangerous infection transmitted through blood includes
a. Dysentery organism
b. Cholera
c. Hepatitis
d. Parasitic cysts
e. Parasitic ova
90. Functions of the brainstem include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Integration of righting reflexes
b. Autonomic control for respiration
c. Equilibrium and posture regulation
d. Fixation of the eyes
e. Initiation of voluntary movements
91. The instrument which provides continuous cooling inside a cabinet at a constant temperature, usually at 4oC, is
a. Thermopore
b. Deep freezer
c. Refrigerator
d. Cooler
92. The modified type (s) of glass pipettes designed to control delivery of a reagent drop by drop is/are
a. Beaker
b. Dropper
c. Burettes
d. Both A and B
e. None of the above
93. The presence of blood in the stools can be confirmed by the test
a. Benzidine test
b. Benedict test
c. Toluidine test
d. Orthotoludine test
e. None of the above
94. While performing VDRL, dilution suggestive for syphilis is a. 1:8
b. 1:4
c. 1:6
d. 1:2
e. 2:15
95. Petechiae result from rupturing of
a. Skin
b. Arteries
c. Veins
d. Capillaries
96. When dealing with known HIV or HBV samples, which biosafety level is used?
a. Level 1
b. Level 3
c. Level 2
d. Level 1 & 3
97. Which part of body has the most abundant sweat glands?
a. Cheeks
b. Forehead
c. Legs
d. Palms
e. Scalp
98. The temperature range of an oven is from a. 35 – 270oC
b. 50 – 120oC c. 115 – 326oC d. 50 – 295oC e. -15 – 50oC
99. In throat swab examination many bacteria can normally be seen because they come from
a. Environmental contamination
b. Normal flask
c. Infection
d. High fever
e. Both A & B
100. Which one of the following joints is an example of the uniaxial variety of synovial joint?
a. Elbow
b. Hip
c. Shoulder
d. Temporomandibular
e. Wrist
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